E Bible Fellowship's Q&A

Wednesday Bible Q & A 12.7.16

Q 1. Hi Chris, Abera inbox a question on Amharic page..He said "Was Jesus God when he was on Earth in flesh ,Did he leave his sovereignty while he was on Earth,If he left his sovereign power,how could he be absolute God,and does that mean God definitely converted to human nature?" and He mentioned Phil 2

A 1. Yes Jesus was Almighty God in the flesh when He walked as a man on the earth almost two thousand years ago.

1 Timothy 3: 16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, ...

He proved it by healing so many with diseases, and by granting sight to the blind, ears to the deaf, legs to the lame, and life to the dead He raised.

He further proved He was the Creator God of the Bible when He turned water into wine. Additionally, He proved He was the all knowing God of the Bible when He knew the inner thoughts that people were thinking around Him. He demonstrated He was the God that created the laws that govern our universe when He set some of these laws aside in order to walk on water.

When Jesus spoke, He spoke with the full authority and power of God. In fact, He referred to His own Word as commandments (If you love Me, keep My commandments---John 14:15). Officers, sent by the Pharisees to apprehend Him, said, “Never man spake like this man”.

In short, every moment the Lord Jesus Christ lived on the earth He was showing to all with absolute certainty---that He was as the prophet Isaiah, hundreds of years earlier had declared, Emmanuel, God with us:

Isaiah 7: 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Matthew 1: 22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, 23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Q 2. Dear Chris, When the "King James" translators translated the Bible into English, what "English" dictionary did they use? ...... Now before you answer let me show you what I am driving at. For example words like "knoweth" or "knowest" do not have the same meaning in our language today. The English language was more sophisticated in a way and could change the meaning of the Bible. If we had a copy of the English dictionary that was used five hundred years ago we can better understand the Bible. Do you "knoweth" what English dictionary they used?

A 2. The English dictionary they used 400+ years ago when the King James Bible was translated is immaterial. We do not have to know the Olde English at all. Actually, the Bible reveals to us that it (the Bible) is its own dictionary. An added benefit of understanding that the Bible is its own dictionary, is that as a result we come to learn the meaning of many Olde English words. For instance, the King James Bible uses the Olde English word, “quick”.

2 Timothy 4: 1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;

Is it necessary for us to go find an olde English dictionary in order to properly understand what the word ‘quick’ means? No. Not at all. All we have to do is search out the Greek word (#2198/zao) that was translated as quick. Once we see how zao is used elsewhere in the Bible a definition (a Biblical definition) for the word soon develops. And, in the case of zao we find that, overwhelmingly, the word means to live, or to be alive:

Matthew 4: 4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live (#2198, zao) by bread alone,

1 Thessalonians 4: 15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive (#2198, zao) and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.

So, when we find this word ‘quick’ used occasionally, we know right away what is means. “The Word of God is quick (alive) and powerful, sharper than a two edged sword...”. We understand its meaning without going outside of the Bible in any way. If we encounter any other word (other than quick) we follow the same methodology of comparing Scripture with Scripture for determining its definition.

Q 3. "So who is Jeovah God ?"

A 3. The name Jehovah is used thousands of times in the Old Testament. Primarily, it is the name God has assigned to identify Himself as Saviour:

Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.

The English word "LORD" in all caps is a translation of the Hebrew word for Jehovah. The verse actually reads: "I, even I, Am Jehovah; and beside Me there is no Saviour."

God, the One the Bible tells us is a jealous God and will not share His glory with another, declares that He, and He alone is Jehovah---the Saviour.

Well now, this gets interesting once we read in the New Testament of the birth of the baby Jesus:

Luke 2:11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.

What? How is it possible that the baby Jesus is said to be the Saviour? Didn't God say, very dogmatically, that He, and He alone was Saviour?

Of course there's a simple explanation for why Jesus is said to be the Saviour in Luke 2 and many other places in the New Testament---the reason Christ is declared the Saviour is because He is Jehovah God come in the flesh (Emmanuel means God with us). And since He is Jehovah God Himself, then He can rightly take upon Himself that glorious title of Saviour.

Sunday Bible Q & A 12.4.16

Q 1. Dear Chris, In Psalms 58: 3 it says "The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies" This has been said to be saying that the whole human race is estranged from God from the womb. Yet there have been people who were not estranged from God in the womb. In Luke 1:41 it says "And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost" It seems that the phrase "The Wicked" is sometimes only referring to the unsaved. Please comment Chris. Thanks!

A 1. The Bible tells us that there are “none righteous, no, not one” (Romans 3:10); and that “all have sinned, and fallen short of the glory of God” (Romans 3:23). Every human being is conceived in sin. It so happens, that in the case of John the Baptist God decided to save him while he was still in his mother’s womb. From time to time, God is able to save a baby that was still in the womb. The baby would have been conceived in sin like others (Psalm 51:5), but at some point thereafter, two months after conception, or three, etc, God utilizes His word and applies the salvation Christ obtained for that individual from the foundation of the world.

During the Day of Salvation the Lord was able to apply salvation through His Word to any of the elect at any point in their lives. A few, like John the Baptist were blessed with salvation early on, in the womb, or shortly after birth; others, like the thief on the cross, did not become saved until a time near their death. And many others were saved somewhere in the middle of those two points.

Q 2. Hi Chris, Can you please explain Ephesian 4:11. Is God teaching that he has given us teachers to teach his word? Thank you.

A 2. Here’s the verse:

Ephesians 4: 11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;

In order to understand this verse we have to realize that their is a distinction between an official office and a deeper spiritual dimension of the thing. For example, there was an official office of apostle, held by the 12, and then later a 13th person (apostle Paul). After replacing Judas with Matthias, and adding the apostle Paul, no one ever again held the official office of apostle.

But the word ‘apostle’ means to be sent. During the New Testament church age, and also during the short season of the latter rain, God sent forth His people with His Word. Therefore the people of God performed the spiritual aspect of an apostle even though none of them were actually apostles in the sense of holding that particular office.

Likewise with prophets, God utilized prophets throughout Biblical history. They were given divine revelation and were instrumental in the writing and compiling of the Bible. But, once the Bible was completed the official office of prophet came to an end. Since the book of Revelation was finished at the end of the 1st century, AD, there has not been an official prophet of God.

Yet, God has sent His people forth (as spiritual apostles) to declare His word to the nations of the world. And in so doing, the people of God has performed the spiritual role of a prophet.

This is why the Bible identifies all of God’s elect as, prophets, priests, and kings:

Acts 2: 17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy,

Revelation 1: 6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

Are the Lord’s people kings in the sense of king Saul, or king David? No, of course not. The official office of king has been done away with (just as the office of apostle and prophet) but spiritually, all God’s people that have been adopted into the royal family of Christ to become sons of God---are kings in the Lord’s sight.

It’s the same thing with pastors and teachers. Only, God did use individuals in the role of pastors and teachers (elders) during the church age. However, once the church age came to an end (as it did in 1988 AD) then the official office of pastor and teacher (teaching elder) came to an end. But again, there is a spiritual function of teaching and pastoring that continues on as it is performed by God’s elect people.

To recap: the office of king, apostle, prophet, pastor, teacher (teaching elder) has been done away with by God. Never again is there to be someone that says is a king of Israel; or an apostle like Peter; or a prophet like Isaiah; or a pastor like a pastor of a church; or a teaching elder. Those offices are now over and done with.

Yet the people of God fulfill the spiritual dimension of each one of them. That is not over.

Wednesday Bible Q & A 11.23.16

Q 1. Dear Chris, In James Chapter 4: 7, Mr.Camping would answer saying "This just isn't true! We can't make the Devil flee from us!" However I proposed the notion that in the letter of James that it was talking about a certain "Human Being" in or around the congregation who introduced some sort of get rich gospel. Look at John 6: 70 and Mark 16: 17. It seems that the word "Devil" is figurative of certain people just like the way it is sometimes used in our day. Do you think that this word could be figurative at times in the Bible?

A 1. In John 6:70 when Jesus says, “one of you is a devil”, we have to remember that the devil himself did enter into Judas as he betrayed the Lord. Therefore one of them was indeed a devil.

We have to be careful with the word devil just like any other word in the Bible. For instance, the King James Bible translates a few different Greek words as devil:

Strong’s #1228 (diabolos--to be tempted of the devil-Matthew 4:1) & #1139 (daimonizomai--man possessed with a devil--Matthew 9:32) & #1140 (daimonion--the devil was cast out--Matthew 9:33) & #846 (auto--Jesus rebuked the devil (lit. it, or him)--Matthew 17:18).

There was a small group of people a while back that veered off course and began to teach that the ‘devil’ was actually the flesh and not an actual evil spirit known as Satan. That is absolutely not in view in the Bible. Satan, or the Devil, is a distinct personality, a fallen angel that entered into the serpent at the beginning and who also tempted Christ in the wilderness.

Concerning your question, “could it be used figuratively of certain people”? We have to keep in mind that Satan often works out his evil intent through unsaved people under his power. Think of Satan’s accusations before God against the faithful man Job. After making those accusations, a little while later in the world stage, we find Job’s wife almost repeating them word for word (curse God and die).

We often find that when men do evil it accomplishes the purpose of the evil one. He is able to stir up unsaved people to do his bidding. Even if God’s elect (like Peter) decide on a course of action that is unbiblical (as Peter said to Christ that He should not die and be raised again) God may assign meaning to that erroneous doctrinal direction as coming from Satan, “Get thee behind Me, Satan: ...for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.”

As always, each reference must be looked at in its context to find out exactly what the Lord is saying.

Q 2. The following question was received via SMS text through our voicemail system:

“At what point do we begin counting seven thousand years, at Genesis 7:4, or Genesis 7:10?”

A 2. Here’s the two verses:

Genesis 7: 4 For yet seven days, and I will cause it to rain upon the earth forty days and forty nights; and every living substance that I have made will I destroy from off the face of the earth.

Genesis 7:10 And it came to pass after seven days, that the waters of the flood were upon the earth.

We start counting the 7000 years from the beginning of the 7 day period. When God says in verse 4, “For yet seven days...” this is the beginning of the historical 7 day, 168 hour week until the flood would arrive 7 days later on the 17th day of the 2nd Hebrew month.

That statement, given in the year 4990 BC, also started the 7000 year millennial clock that elapsed in the year 2011 AD. It’s interesting that as the historical literal 7 day period expired the flood began on the 17th day of the 2nd month. Exactly similar to the 7000 year timeline expiring on May 21, 2011, which had the underlying Hebrew calendar date of the 17th day of the 2nd month.

Sunday Bible Q & A 11.13.16

Q 2.“After the FAILURE of 2011 AD & 2015 AD, nowadays there are several POSSIBILITIES. Some of them are '2017/2018'; '2032'; '2033'; '2044' & '3000'AD's. Most of them are trying to quote from the Bible. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Is there any advantages for CONSIDERING on those years ?”

A 2. First of all, if by failure you are referring to the end of the world, then yes, we were incorrect in 2011 about that. But there was no error whatsoever regarding the date for the Day of Judgment. May 21, 2011 was indeed Judgment Day!

Anyone could find a time path or two for practically any year. There are a couple of things that point to 2017 and 2018. But that’s not good enough. True Biblical dates are locked in and supported by numerous Biblical evidence. None of the dates you’ve mentioned, except one, qualify for the end of the world.

The date that appears again and again is the date for 2033 AD. Here’s a small sampling of Bible evidence that points to that date:

2167 + 2033 = 4200 years from the birth of Abraham

2067 + 2033 = 4100 years from time Abraham is 100 and Isaac is born

1877 + 2033 = 3910 years (10 x 17 x 23) from Jacob’s entrance into Egypt during famine

1407 + 2033 = 3440 years (40 x 2 x 43) from entrance into promised land

1007 + 2033 = 3040 years (40 x 2 x 2 x 19) from David’s ascending the throne

967 + 2033 = 3000 years (10 x 10 x 10 x 3) from laying of temple foundation

7 + 2033 = 2040 years (40 x 3 x 17) from birth of Christ

33 AD to 2033 = 2000 years (10 x 10 x 10 x 2) from Christ hanging on the cross

Each one of the above time paths are major time paths. There are many, many more.

Again, none of the other dates you’ve mentioned have this kind of Biblical support. Only 2033 has Biblical support on par with dates such as 1994 and 2011.

Sunday Bible Q & A 11.6.16

Q 4. A Chinese student is asking a practical quesiton: Is there any meaning to have new babies at this stage as God is bringing judgment on the world?

A 4. We know that God’s command to multiply and replenish the earth has never been rescinded. A child of God leaves the matter of reproduction and child birth completely in God’s hands. God’s elect do not try to prevent birth by using birth control nor would we ever want to end a pregnancy through abortion. We leave the whole matter of children to God’s perfect will. And if the Lord does bless a husband and wife with a child in these dark days of judgment, that is a result of the will of God.

Believing parents are to love that baby and raise that baby according to the commandments of God.

My wife and I are too old to have children at this point. But if we were able to be blessed with children we would follow the Bible’s guidelines for raising children (bringing them up in the fear and admonition of the Lord)---we would read the baby the Bible and pray for the baby. The only difference being, that in our prayers we would pray this way, “O Father, may the cup of wrath pass from off this child. O Father, bless this child in all ways possible.” And we would then say, “Not our will, but Thine be done.”

Many believing parents have raised children that never became saved. Which means they were never saved when they were little boys and girls. Yet, there was great blessing for the mother and the father in having the children, and in raising the children. Even though it did not result in salvation.

Therefore, a child of God ought to carry on with marriage and child bearing like any other time in history. And the way a child of God does that is to leave the whole matter in the Lord’s hands.

Q. Hi Chris,

We know God raises up rulers and puts them down. In light of God removing His hand of restraint upon sin during judgment day we thought a liberal position that favors full term abortion and homosexual marriage would have been chosen instead of one that opposes both of these very sinful practices. Do you think perhaps God will use this to hold in check to a limited degree the sinfulness of the unsaved so that they won't completely destroy themselves before that appointed time?

Thank you and may God continue to bless E-Bible.

A. E Bible Fellowship does not want to get involved with political discussion in any way. Our desire is to focus on the Bible and the things the Bible says.

However, the Bible does tell us that we are living in the Day of Judgment. And so we are very interested in looking at the world in order to see if there are any indicators of this judgment taking place?

One way that the Bible pictures Judgment Day is through the fall of Babylon at the end of a 70 year tribulation that typified the great tribulation period. Babylon’s fall is a picture of the world’s fall to the Lord Jesus Christ on May 21, 2011.

Since we know that Babylon (the world) has fallen we do find some very interesting developments taking place in the world since the date of May 21, 2011. For instance, since that time the religion that most identifies with the world (Islam), has suffered through a series of terrorist acts committed in its name, which has caused it to be viewed increasingly in a negative way.

The media can be viewed as the world’s mouthpiece. During the time of God’s judgment on the churches, it (the media) often gladly reported the many sins of the world’s congregations. In reporting their many failings during those 23 years God used the media as a sort of instrument of judgment on the apostate churches. But now things have turned (spoil them that spoil you) and respect for the media outlets is way down. They (the world’s mouthpiece) are being viewed more and more as being biased. This again fits in with the idea of God’s judgment upon Babylon (the world’s system). When God’s judgment is upon you nothing goes right.

I want to be very careful here, and again point out that E Bible is not attempting to enter into political discussion in any way. That is not our focus at all. But we are interested in how God’s judgment upon this world (Babylon) is being worked out.

It is obvious that the political ideology of liberalism is that system of beliefs which most closely identifies with the world. Allow me to explain this a little further.

The liberal view supports abortion and gay marriage. It (the liberal view) therefore is obviously anti-Biblical on these points. As a result, its position is a worldly view. And since the world is currently under the judgment of God, it is not surprising that we are finding the world’s main political ideology (liberalism) increasingly being viewed in a negative light. Through this we see another aspect of God’s judgment on the world being worked out. Again, since Babylon (the world) has fallen, we can expect that nothing will go right for it.